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Sep 26, 2023 at 20:59 comment added Christian Remling @MatthiasLudewig: Yes, of course. The OP suggested to assume that $S,T>0$ and mentions functional calculus, so this would seem to be the intended interpretation. (I also have no idea how we would define $S^{it}$ for general $S$.)
Sep 26, 2023 at 20:51 comment added Matthias Ludewig This only works if $S$ and $T$ are self-adjoint.
Sep 26, 2023 at 18:04 history answered Christian Remling CC BY-SA 4.0