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Nov 10, 2010 at 14:58 comment added Joel David Hamkins If you use functions with nonzero finite limit, then they would seem to be all in just one equivalence class. For example, if $f(x)\to 2$ and $g(x)\to 5$, then $f\leq g$ and $g\leq f$ by choosing the right $C$ in each case.
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:58 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez The right hand side of the $\Leftrightarrow$ is pretty strange. You meant to say that the limit exists, or that the $\limsup$ is finite, or that $|f/g|$ is bounded on some right half-line; but what you wrote is more or less meaningless.
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:51 comment added Gerry Myerson I fixed the \lim.
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:50 history edited Gerry Myerson CC BY-SA 2.5
improved formatting
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:49 comment added Yuval Filmus Can't you add $f(x)=x$ to your set?
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:36 comment added Dirk Concerning the LaTeX-question: Probably you just forgot the backslash in front of lim?
Nov 10, 2010 at 4:06 comment added Ross Millikan If anybody can explain why the $x\rightarrow \infty$ didn't go under the $lim$ in the last I would appreciate it. Still learning LaTex.
Nov 10, 2010 at 3:44 history answered Ross Millikan CC BY-SA 2.5