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Sep 15, 2023 at 10:16 comment added user488802 Sorry, why a unique symplectic form on V implies a unique conjugacy class?
Sep 15, 2023 at 2:36 comment added LSpice @JoshuaMundinger, re, ah, right, thanks.
Sep 15, 2023 at 2:02 comment added Joshua Mundinger @LSpice The question is a little ambiguous. If we take $Q/Z(G)$ in the statement to mean $Q/Q \cap Z(G)$, then $Q/Q \cap Z(G)$ being abelian means $-1 \in Q$ maps into $Z(G)$.
Sep 15, 2023 at 0:11 comment added LSpice @JoshuaMundinger, re, that was my question: why must $Z(Q)$ map to $Z(G)$? Certainly it must for an irreducible representation, but I don't see it in general.
Sep 14, 2023 at 23:53 comment added Joshua Mundinger @user488802 the tensor product of two vector spaces $V^* \otimes \rho$ with alternating bilinear forms carries a symmetric bilinear form: the tensor product of the forms.
Sep 14, 2023 at 23:49 comment added Joshua Mundinger @LSpice $Z(G) = \{\pm 1\}$ so an injective homorphism sending $Z(Q)$ into $Z(G)$ must send $-1$ to $-1$.
Sep 14, 2023 at 22:50 history edited Kenta Suzuki CC BY-SA 4.0
added 249 characters in body
Sep 14, 2023 at 21:54 comment added LSpice I don't understand—why couldn't an Abelian group like $Q/Z(G)$ have an element $-1$ acting trivially on some components? (Clearly not on all, since the homomorphism is injective.)
Sep 14, 2023 at 21:53 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 14, 2023 at 20:59 history answered Kenta Suzuki CC BY-SA 4.0