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Sep 12, 2023 at 9:51 vote accept kindasorta
Sep 11, 2023 at 17:35 comment added kindasorta Though it should be said that from your description it isn't immediately obvious that the automorphism $\sigma$ should be algebraic
Sep 11, 2023 at 17:31 comment added kindasorta Thank you very much for this clarification! Actually, I am interested in the case where the base is an arbitrary number field/ring of integers. How does the definition of "hyperelliptic" changes in this setting?
Sep 11, 2023 at 17:16 comment added David E Speyer So having a degree $2$ map to $\mathbb{P}^1$ is the stronger property and (at least for $g \geq 2$ and $K$ algebraically closed), that is the definition of "hyperelliptic".
Sep 11, 2023 at 17:15 comment added David E Speyer In the comments above, you refer to order $2$ automorphisms of $C$. The logical implications are (a) If $f:C \to \mathbb{P}^1$ is a degree $2$ rational map, then there is an order $2$ automorphism $\sigma : C \to C$ so that, for all $x \in C$, we have $f^{-1}(f(x)) = x+\sigma(x)$ (equality of divisors). (b) If $\sigma : C \to C$ is an order two automorphism, then there is an algebraic curve $C/\sigma$, and $C \to C/\sigma$ is degree $2$. However, the curve $C/\sigma$ may or may not be $\mathbb{P}^1$. (continued)
Sep 11, 2023 at 16:53 comment added David E Speyer By definition (taking $g \geq 2$ and $K$ algebraically closed to avoid awkward cases), a curve $C$ is hyperelliptic if and only if there is a degree $2$ rational map $f : C \to \mathbb{P}^1$.
Sep 11, 2023 at 16:48 comment added kindasorta So, what is the relation with hyperellipticity?
Sep 11, 2023 at 16:35 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 4.0