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Sep 5, 2023 at 0:26 comment added shuhalo Fun fact: if you replace $y = x/(1-x)$ in the last term, then you can rewrite the zero condition as $y^{n+1} - 2 y - n = 0$.
Aug 31, 2023 at 18:19 vote accept shuhalo
Aug 31, 2023 at 9:39 comment added Fedor Petrov @YCor indeed , but for any complex value $e^{n\log(x-1)+i\pi (2k+1)n}$ (with integer $k$) the proof works
Aug 31, 2023 at 9:00 comment added YCor For non-integer real $n>0$ and $x>1$, it is not clear how you define $(1-x)^n$.
Aug 30, 2023 at 15:00 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 4.0