Timeline for Ideals: If $\langle f_1,f_2 \rangle = \langle g_1,g_2 \rangle$, then $\langle f_1-\lambda,f_2-\mu \rangle = \langle g_1-\delta,g_2-\epsilon \rangle$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 31, 2023 at 13:35 | vote | accept | user237522 | ||
| Aug 30, 2023 at 14:15 | answer | added | Zach Teitler | timeline score: 5 | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 10:28 | comment | added | Zach Teitler | Compare $\langle x,y\rangle$ with $\langle x(1-xy),y\rangle$ | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 9:25 | history | edited | user237522 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 94 characters in body; edited title
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| Aug 30, 2023 at 9:18 | comment | added | user237522 | @GeraldEdgar, thank you, I will edit it now. I will try to make the title more clear and state the definition at the beginning. | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 9:17 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | No need to change. Merely state the definition at the beginning. | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 9:14 | comment | added | user237522 | @GeraldEdgar, thank you for your comment. I apologize. Should I change it to $(,)$? Or write it is an ideal? | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 9:09 | comment | added | Gerald Edgar | In the title I thought $\langle f_1,f_2 \rangle$ was some sort of inner product. But now I guess it means the ideal generated by $\{f_1,f_2\}$. | |
| Aug 30, 2023 at 8:26 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 5, 2023 at 3:04 | |||||
| Aug 30, 2023 at 7:55 | history | asked | user237522 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |