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Aug 27, 2023 at 7:15 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Aug 26, 2023 at 20:21 comment added Dominic van der Zypen What I find extra counter-intuitive about @Gro-Tsen's and CommandMaster's construction is, that $\pi^{-1}$ has the property that $d\big(\text{ex}(\pi^{-1})\big) = 0 < 1 = d\big(\text{negex}((\pi^{-1})\big)$. Counterintuitive, because "below every natural number there are only finitely many naturals, but above infinitely many".
Aug 26, 2023 at 17:25 comment added LSpice Re, @CommandMaster's comment. Perhaps the acknowledgement could go in the main post?
Aug 26, 2023 at 15:35 comment added Gro-Tsen Ah, it seems that Command Master came up with the same answer (in the comments) as I was typing this one.
Aug 26, 2023 at 15:33 history answered Gro-Tsen CC BY-SA 4.0