Timeline for Is there $r>0$ such that the norm $[f]_r:=\sup_{n \ge 1} \|1_{B(y_n, r)} f\|_{L^p}$ is equivalent to $\|f \|:=\sup_{y \in Y}\|1_{B(y,1)}f\|_{L^p}$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 24, 2023 at 9:12 | history | asked | Analyst | CC BY-SA 4.0 |