Timeline for What's the relation between viscosity solutions of infinity harmonic functions and normalized infinity harmonic functions?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Sep 2, 2023 at 17:07 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
| S Sep 2, 2023 at 17:07 | history | notice removed | CommunityBot | ||
| Aug 25, 2023 at 17:07 | comment | added | user378654 | It's a bit hard to understand what exactly you are asking. For the RHS $0$ case, they are automatically equivalent under the normal definitions of viscosity solution (touch by any smooth function for top, one having nonzero gradient for bottom): if you touch from one side by a smooth function, the two inequalities are equivalent for smooth functions; this is clear if the gradient is nonzero, while if it is zero the top one is vacuous while the bottom one isn't checked. With a nonzero RHS, they are just two different PDE, the difference has nothing to do with viscosity solutions per se. | |
| S Aug 25, 2023 at 15:36 | history | bounty started | user29999 | ||
| S Aug 25, 2023 at 15:36 | history | notice added | user29999 | Draw attention | |
| Aug 21, 2023 at 19:16 | history | edited | Michael Hardy | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 25 characters in body
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| Aug 21, 2023 at 15:50 | history | asked | user29999 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |