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Aug 18, 2023 at 8:39 comment added Jochen Wengenroth But the vector space structur is needed to define the linear partial differential operator.
Aug 16, 2023 at 22:42 comment added Jochen Glueck Hmm, I'm not sure I find this perspective convincing (with regard to the question at hand). I mean, you're technically right of course. But with the same reasoning one can also say that Malgrange's theorem has nothing to do with $C^\infty(\Omega)$ being a vector space.
Aug 16, 2023 at 21:19 history answered Jochen Wengenroth CC BY-SA 4.0