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S Aug 13, 2023 at 3:38 history suggested user509119 CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed grammar
Aug 13, 2023 at 0:30 review Suggested edits
S Aug 13, 2023 at 3:38
Aug 12, 2023 at 20:18 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 2
Aug 12, 2023 at 8:10 review Suggested edits
Aug 12, 2023 at 17:59
Aug 12, 2023 at 0:45 comment added user509119 The expression does not make sense if $\int_\mathbb{R}e^{y\xi} e^{-|\xi|}\,d\xi=\infty$. For instance, $\int_\mathbb{R} e^{-i\xi x}e^{-|\xi|}\,d\xi$ extends to $\frac{1}{1+z^2}$. This is not an entire function, but $\int_\mathbb{R}e^{y\xi} e^{-|\xi|}\,d\xi=\infty$ is remarkable.
Aug 11, 2023 at 17:16 comment added Gerald Edgar Is it true that the analytic continuation (if it exists) must be $f(z)=\int_\mathbb{R}e^{-i z\xi}\,d\mu(\xi), z \in \mathbb C$ ?
Aug 11, 2023 at 14:48 comment added user509119 Under the assumption, for any $y\in\mathbb{R}$, $\int e^{y\xi}\,d\mu(\xi)<\infty$ is ture?
Aug 11, 2023 at 14:09 history asked user509119 CC BY-SA 4.0