Timeline for What is the measure of two sets which partition the reals into subsets of positive measure?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Aug 4, 2023 at 3:38 | history | suggested | J. W. Tanner | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
corrected grammar (subject-verb number agreement) in title
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| Aug 4, 2023 at 3:24 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Aug 4, 2023 at 3:38 | |||||
| Aug 4, 2023 at 2:43 | vote | accept | Arbuja | ||
| Aug 4, 2023 at 1:11 | answer | added | Joel David Hamkins | timeline score: 3 | |
| Aug 4, 2023 at 0:53 | comment | added | Arbuja | @bof I made edits. | |
| Aug 4, 2023 at 0:52 | history | edited | Arbuja | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Made changes from @bofs comment
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| Aug 4, 2023 at 0:48 | comment | added | bof | Given a number $\varepsilon\gt0$ we can constract an $F_\sigma$ set $A\subset\mathbb R$ so that (i) for every nonempty open set $U\subseteq\mathbb R$, both $U\cap A$ and $U\setminus A$ have positive Lebesgue measure;, and (ii) the set $A$ has Lebesgue measure less than $\varepsilon$. | |
| Aug 4, 2023 at 0:43 | comment | added | bof | How could both measures be $1/2$? Doesn't $\mathbb R$ have measure $\infty$? What measure are you using? | |
| Aug 3, 2023 at 23:36 | history | asked | Arbuja | CC BY-SA 4.0 |