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Jul 28, 2023 at 20:47 comment added Iosif Pinelis I don't think it is in Folland.
Jul 28, 2023 at 20:33 comment added Isaac If I remember correctly, one of them is "Real Analysis" by Folland.
Jul 28, 2023 at 20:26 comment added Iosif Pinelis Which textbooks?
Jul 28, 2023 at 19:02 comment added Isaac In fact, I believe that the convolution is smooth on any open ball contained in $X \times Y$.
Jul 28, 2023 at 19:00 comment added Isaac Ok, I think I corrected everything... I ran into $L^{p,q}$ spaces in standard real analysis textbooks. Also, I believe at least the convolution is jointly continuous, so that it belongs to $L^{p,q}$ for the compact underlying regions $X$ and $Y$.
Jul 28, 2023 at 18:55 history edited Isaac CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 28, 2023 at 18:19 comment added Iosif Pinelis Where did you see the $L^{p,q}$ spaces? Also, do you have a proof that $f * [\phi^n_\epsilon \otimes \phi^m_\epsilon]\in L^{p,q}$ if $f\in L^{p,q}$?
Jul 28, 2023 at 14:52 comment added Iosif Pinelis In your definition of the convolution, you probably wanted $f(x',y')$ instead of $f(x,y)$. Also, my point (iii) is still not addressed.
Jul 27, 2023 at 23:49 history edited Isaac CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 27, 2023 at 14:28 history edited Isaac CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 27, 2023 at 14:16 comment added Isaac OK, I will specify all the details. Thank you.
Jul 27, 2023 at 13:52 comment added Iosif Pinelis (i) What is the "$L^{p'q}$ space"? (ii) "converges to $f$" or to $0$? What if $f=1$ on $X\times Y$? (iii) How is the convolution of $f$ with the mollifier defined, given that $f$ is only defined on $X\times Y$? (iv) What is "the standard mollifier"?
Jul 27, 2023 at 12:35 history asked Isaac CC BY-SA 4.0