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Jul 26, 2023 at 20:27 vote accept user_lambda
Jul 26, 2023 at 18:57 history edited user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 26, 2023 at 18:52 history edited user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 26, 2023 at 16:46 comment added user_lambda Yes. $E(y)=[I_ny_1,\dots,I_ny_n]$. $x$ is basically a $n^2\times 1$ column vector made of smaller $n\times 1$ vectors $z_j$ such that $x'=[z_1', \dots, z_n']$. Then each row $i$ of the equality constraint is $\sum_j y_{j}z_{ji}=y_i-c_i.$
Jul 26, 2023 at 16:34 comment added fedja Just to be sure: does $E(y)=y'\otimes I_n$ mean that $E(y)x=(y_1 x_1+y_2 x_2+\dots +y_n x_n)$ where $x_i$ is the set of the successive entries of $x$ with indices from $(i-1)n+1$ to $in$ or something else? (that depends on how you split $x\in \mathbb R^{n^2}$ and you didn't specify that explicitly).
Jul 26, 2023 at 15:27 history edited user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 26, 2023 at 14:42 history edited user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 26, 2023 at 13:34 answer added fedja timeline score: 4
Jul 26, 2023 at 13:21 history edited user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 26, 2023 at 0:53 history asked user_lambda CC BY-SA 4.0