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Aug 9, 2023 at 20:13 comment added Joel David Hamkins I agree with Andrej that this usage is often bad, since people sometimes use it to mean that all three are different, but that isn't actually what it says. A similar problem arises with $p\iff q\iff r$, which people use to mean that all three are equivalent, but one cannot put brackets in to make it have this meaning.
Aug 9, 2023 at 19:05 answer added KP Hart timeline score: 3
Aug 7, 2023 at 21:23 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Aug 7, 2023 at 17:23 answer added KP Hart timeline score: 4
Jul 21, 2023 at 18:14 comment added Dominic van der Zypen You're welcome. - Why do you think it should be avoided?
Jul 21, 2023 at 17:00 comment added Andrej Bauer Thanks for the explanation. (I think $x \neq y \neq z$ is better avoided in general.)
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:42 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
added 37 characters in body
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:28 comment added Dominic van der Zypen Oh right... and your answer to my previous question implies that it is also consistent that for all posets, the hypergraph of principal down-sets has property ${\bf B}$?
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:23 comment added Joel David Hamkins But now the question is answered by the remark you made before, concerning a model of ZF with a non-Ramsey function.
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:16 comment added Dominic van der Zypen @AndrejBauer I would take $x \neq y \neq z$ to mean $[x\neq y \text{ and } y \neq z]$, so that $x = z$ would be possible. However, in the special case of this question, if $S\cap e\neq \emptyset$ and $e\setminus S\neq \emptyset$ we cannot have $S\cap e = e\setminus S$.
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:14 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
added 24 characters in body
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:13 comment added Dominic van der Zypen @JoelDavidHamkins - correct, will reformulate the question
Jul 21, 2023 at 16:06 comment added Andrej Bauer What does $x \neq y \neq z$ mean?
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:58 comment added Joel David Hamkins But if you are still asking for a poset without property B, there seems no AC angle any longer. I'm not yet sure how to do it even in ZFC, but you ask about ZF. Indeed, I suspect that ZFC proves that every poset has property B, so we shouldn't expect ZF to prove there is a poset without B. Rather, the question should be: is it consistent with ZF that there is a poset without property B?
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:56 comment added Dominic van der Zypen Thanks @JoelDavidHamkins for spotting this, and apologies for the wrong part in the question. I hope that I got it right this time and that the bit after the question which is supposed to have a clarifying function is not confusing (or wrong).
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:55 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0
removed wrong part and added (hopfefully) clarifying bit after question
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:53 comment added Joel David Hamkins Yes, that is right.
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:52 comment added Dominic van der Zypen If I get it right this time: In ${\sf (ZFC)}$, the poset $([\omega]^\omega, \subseteq)$ does have property ${\bf B}$, and if I understand your answer to my previous question correctly, it is consistent in ${\sf (ZF)}$ that $([\omega]^\omega, \subseteq)$ does not have property ${\bf B}$.
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:49 comment added Dominic van der Zypen You are right! I got it exactly wrong. I am wondering whether there is a poset $(P, \leq)$ such that no matter how you color $P$, you will get a mono-chromatic down-set (with more than $1$ element). Will modify the question!
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:36 comment added Joel David Hamkins More specifically, one uses AC to pick representatives from each finite-difference equivalence class, and then let $S$ be the family of sets that have even-difference from their chosen representative. This shows that $[\omega]^\omega$ fulfills property B, not that it omits it. Right?
Jul 21, 2023 at 15:03 comment added Joel David Hamkins I'm confused. In your blog post (and here), you seem to say that the existence of a non-Ramsey function $c:[\omega]^\omega\to 2$ is equivalent to the question whether the poset $\langle[\omega]^\omega,\subset\rangle$ does not have property B. But isn't this backwards? A non-Ramsey function shows that the poset does have property B, since the coloring provides the set $S$, the non-Ramseyness means that no set is homogeneous, which makes it fulfill property B. Please help me out.
Jul 21, 2023 at 13:21 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 4.0