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Jul 24, 2023 at 20:26 vote accept tony
Jul 17, 2023 at 12:49 comment added Iosif Pinelis It is not true that $\inf_{t\in T} X_t=0$. What is true (and shown in the answer) is that $\inf_{t\in T} X_t\le0$, which immediately implies (as stated in the answer) that $P(\inf X_t>0)=0\not\to1.$
Jul 17, 2023 at 8:55 comment added tony Thanks! but from $\inf X_t=0$, we can still say $P(\inf X_t\geq 0)\neq 0$, and then since $P(\inf X_t>0)=P(\inf X_t\geq 0)$ (if I am correct), we cannot conclude $P(\inf X_t>0)= 0$.
Jul 16, 2023 at 16:31 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0