Timeline for Why Is Pudlak's relation on the family of one- or two-element subsets of a set transitive?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 19, 2023 at 3:01 | vote | accept | Tri | ||
| Jul 16, 2023 at 11:55 | answer | added | Emil Jeřábek | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jul 16, 2023 at 11:15 | comment | added | Emil Jeřábek | @Tri It might be either, but why should that matter? | |
| Jul 16, 2023 at 6:31 | history | edited | YCor | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
formatting, added tag
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| Jul 15, 2023 at 23:55 | comment | added | Tri | @Ethan Splaver Thank you for your comment. When I try to write out a proof using the composition, it is not so clear. The issue is that we don't know whether $f_i(a)=u_{i-1}$ or $u_i$. | |
| Jul 15, 2023 at 23:34 | comment | added | Ethan Splaver | Because if $\{a,b\}$ dominates $\{c,d\}$ and $\{c,d\}$ dominates $\{e,h\}$ then you can compose the two functions which exist for each pair to get a third function which allows the domination of $\{a,b\}$ towards $\{e,h\}$. | |
| Jul 15, 2023 at 23:06 | history | asked | Tri | CC BY-SA 4.0 |