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Jul 14, 2023 at 22:44 comment added Jochen Glueck Weclome to MathOverflow! The solution $u(t)$ converges in $L^2(\Omega)$ to $\frac{1}{|\Omega|} \int_\Omega u_0(x) \,dx \, 1$ as $t \to \infty$. So how could one expect it to be square-integrable in time, unless the spatial integral of $u_0$ vanishes?
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