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Jul 14, 2023 at 12:37 comment added Nathaniel Johnston I believe that the current answer to this question is "we don't know". There's no obvious reason why $\omega_F$ would have to be field-independent, but for all we know at this point it could be the case that $\omega_F = 2$ for every field.
Jul 14, 2023 at 9:31 history asked Nick Chen CC BY-SA 4.0