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Jul 4, 2023 at 18:31 vote accept Salvo Tringali
Jul 4, 2023 at 3:57 answer added Guozhen Shen timeline score: 16
Jul 3, 2023 at 17:33 answer added Farmer S timeline score: 11
Jul 3, 2023 at 14:34 comment added godelian @MikhailKatz The original question did not indicate that this was intended to be thought in ZF, and in ZFC it is indeed a trivial well-known fact (as even the OP suspected), whence my vote to migrate to Maths Sack Exchange. Now the question has changed
Jul 3, 2023 at 14:25 comment added Calliope Ryan-Smith Not a solution, but I think that if $A$ is Dedekind-infinite and $|A^2|\geq^*|\mathscr{P}(A)|$ then we have that $A^2$, $[A]^{{<}\omega}$, $[A^2]^{{<}\omega}$, and $\mathscr{P}(A)$ all surject onto each other, while only some inject into each other.
Jul 3, 2023 at 14:07 history edited Salvo Tringali CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 3, 2023 at 14:06 history edited Mikhail Katz CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 3, 2023 at 14:03 comment added Mikhail Katz This seems like an interesting question (without choice as per the comment above). I don't understand why people are voting to close it. @SalvoTringali you should modify your question to reflect the fact that it is about ZF, not ZFC.
Jul 3, 2023 at 14:02 history edited Salvo Tringali CC BY-SA 4.0
improved on the question (hopefully!)
Jul 3, 2023 at 2:27 history edited David Roberts CC BY-SA 4.0
Clarified title/grammar
Jul 2, 2023 at 22:23 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo But I don't know right away what the situation is without choice.
Jul 2, 2023 at 22:13 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo The answer is yes under choice.
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:59 comment added Salvo Tringali @MichaelHardy I'm not asking whether $|X| = |Y|$ implies that the family $\mathcal P_{\rm fin}(X)$ of finite subsets of $X$ has the same cardinality as the family $\mathcal P_{\rm fin}(Y)$ of finite subsets of $Y$. I'm rather asking whether $|\mathcal P_{\rm fin}(X)| = |\mathcal P_{\rm fin}(Y)|$ implies that $|X| = |Y|$.
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:42 review Close votes
Jul 3, 2023 at 14:32
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:36 comment added Salvo Tringali @NikWeaver Thanks! And a ref for the statement that "An infinite set has, in ZFC, the same cardinality as the collection of its finite parts" is essentially Corollary 8.13 in Chapter 0 of Hungerford's Algebra.
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:11 comment added Nik Weaver I think this is just the fact that (in ZFC) any infinite set has the same cardinality as the set of all of its finite subsets. So yes, if the sets of finite subsets of $X$ and $Y$ have the same cardinality then so do $X$ and $Y$.
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:09 comment added Michael Hardy $\ldots\,$the mapping $Z\mapsto\{ f(x):x\in X\} \subseteq Y$ is a bijection between the set of all finite subsets of $X$ have the same cardinality as the set of all finite subsets of $Y.$ Conclude that those both have the same cardinality. $\qquad$
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:07 comment added Michael Hardy You state yourself that the question of whether $X$ and $Y$ have the same cardinality is undecidable in ZFC, then you make it part of your question. The lesser part of your question seems to be: If $X$ and $Y$ have the same cardinality, then does the set of all finite subsets of $X$ have the same cardinality as the set of all finite subsets of $Y.$ That one has an easy affirmative answer: If $X$ and $Y$ have the same cardinality, then there is a function $f:X\to Y$ that is injective and surjective. For finite sets $Z\subseteq X,$ show that$\,\ldots\qquad$
Jul 2, 2023 at 21:03 history edited Salvo Tringali CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 2, 2023 at 20:58 history edited Salvo Tringali CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 23 characters in body
Jul 2, 2023 at 20:51 history asked Salvo Tringali CC BY-SA 4.0