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Jun 18, 2023 at 17:40 vote accept Pedro Poitevin
Jun 18, 2023 at 2:22 comment added Terry Tao Actually on closer inspection the gauge condition is obeyed for $p \geq q$. See the answer given below.
Jun 18, 2023 at 2:03 answer added Terry Tao timeline score: 9
Jun 17, 2023 at 18:14 comment added Pedro Poitevin Thank you, @TerryTao. I was led astray by a myriad calculations and have not yet found a counterexample to the triangle inequality. Your explanation and reference have clarified matters for me. Thank you for taking the time.
Jun 17, 2023 at 17:34 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 17, 2023 at 16:39 comment added Terry Tao This expression is unitarily invariant, but is not a symmetric gauge function of the singular values, hence is not a norm. See for instance nhigham.com/2021/02/02/what-is-a-unitarily-invariant-norm
Jun 17, 2023 at 16:28 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Jun 17, 2023 at 16:07 review First questions
Jun 17, 2023 at 16:38
S Jun 17, 2023 at 16:07 history asked Pedro Poitevin CC BY-SA 4.0