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Jun 13, 2023 at 11:37 answer added Robbie Lyman timeline score: 5
Jun 13, 2023 at 0:59 comment added Lee Mosher I'm willing to be that any fast, natural way to see that $\mathbf{PGL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$ is finitely generated without explicit construction of generators will just have an explicit construction of generators hidden in its proof. It's so simple to prove that fact about $\mathbf{PGL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$ that it has been generalized to the hilt, and all those generalizations are proved by, well, generalizing the construction for $\mathbf{PGL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$.
Jun 7, 2023 at 17:24 comment added paul garrett @YCor, ah, ok, good, thanks! Somehow I wasn't parsing it correctly. :)
Jun 7, 2023 at 17:24 comment added YCor @paulgarrett I don't think there's a typo. The abelianization argument doesn't work for $\mathrm{SL}_m$.
Jun 7, 2023 at 16:09 comment added paul garrett @YCor, good comment, but I am confused by your "unlike any abelianization argument"... Is there a typo? Or can you clarify? :)
Jun 7, 2023 at 12:56 comment added YCor If $\mathrm{PGL}_2(\mathbf{Q})$ were f.g., it would equal $\mathrm{PGL}_2(\mathbf{Z}[1/n])$ for some $n\ge 1$. But this is not the case since the latter group misses the image of the matrix $e_{12}(1/p)$ for every prime $p$ not dividing $n$. This argument also works for an arbitrary infinite field (since no infinite field is a finitely generated ring), and, unlike any abelianization argument, works for $\mathrm{SL}_m$ as well.
Jun 7, 2023 at 12:45 answer added Aurel timeline score: 11
Jun 7, 2023 at 12:30 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 7, 2023 at 12:23 history asked THC CC BY-SA 4.0