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Jun 1, 2023 at 14:48 vote accept Dom
Jun 1, 2023 at 14:32 comment added Dom @NoamD.Elkies Yes, the finite field of $p$ elements.
Jun 1, 2023 at 14:27 answer added Noam D. Elkies timeline score: 10
Jun 1, 2023 at 14:15 comment added Noam D. Elkies I suppose "${\mathbb Z}_p$" is being used here for the finite field of $p$ elements, not the $p$-adic numbers.
Jun 1, 2023 at 13:37 comment added Dom I edited the question to clarify.
Jun 1, 2023 at 13:37 history edited Dom CC BY-SA 4.0
added 46 characters in body
Jun 1, 2023 at 13:31 comment added Dom Sorry. For the equivalent problem, I am assuming -1 is not a square in $\mathbb{Z}_p$, i.e., $p \equiv 3 \pmod 4$. That's the case I am the most interested in, but I believe the first statement holds for all $p > 3$.
Jun 1, 2023 at 13:26 comment added Will Sawin Why is this equivalent?
S Jun 1, 2023 at 13:18 review First questions
Jun 1, 2023 at 13:20
S Jun 1, 2023 at 13:18 history asked Dom CC BY-SA 4.0