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May 31, 2023 at 7:54 vote accept Sheng Wang
May 30, 2023 at 20:10 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
May 30, 2023 at 13:08 history edited Sheng Wang CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 30, 2023 at 13:07 comment added Sheng Wang For a $A\subset \Omega, \mathbb{P}(A)=1$, the series converges for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and $\omega\in A$.
May 30, 2023 at 11:58 comment added Dieter Kadelka Can you explain what uniform convergence is in this case. You have a function of $\omega$ from the underlying probability space and $x$.
May 30, 2023 at 11:39 history asked Sheng Wang CC BY-SA 4.0