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Feb 6, 2023 at 16:31 comment added mathlander See also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/4587371/… and math.stackexchange.com/questions/4588139/…
Jan 19, 2022 at 15:45 comment added Watson (Yes, I also agree that there is an issue with the answer -- this was just to mention some other attempts that do not use $C^{\infty}$ directly)
Jan 19, 2022 at 10:44 comment added Steven Gubkin @watson I agree with Ben Grossman in the comments there. The accepted answer is incorrect.
Jan 19, 2022 at 10:26 comment added Watson See also math.stackexchange.com/questions/1682284 (to avoid using $C^{\infty}(\Bbb R)$... which requires differentiation to be defined).
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 30, 2014 at 22:27 comment added Michael Hardy I wonder what nice sets of conditions that include shift-equivariance are satisfied only by differentiation?
Nov 4, 2010 at 6:20 vote accept Steven Gubkin
Nov 4, 2010 at 5:47 answer added Pedro Solorzano timeline score: 1
Nov 4, 2010 at 5:23 answer added Dick Palais timeline score: 34
Nov 4, 2010 at 3:59 comment added Mark Meckes It's kind of dense, but you might be interested in this talk (I don't think a preprint is available yet): fields.utoronto.ca/audio/10-11/analysis/koenig
Nov 4, 2010 at 3:59 comment added KConrad This question is closely related to the question mathoverflow.net/questions/25054/… and take a look at the string of comments I made on my own answer there for a discussion of how the product rule (in settings that include more rings than just the smooth functions on R) can be derived from more basic conditions.
Nov 4, 2010 at 3:38 comment added Ryan Budney If $L$ is a derivation on $C^\infty(\mathbb R)$ it is a Lie derivative (wrt a vector field). See Conlon's "Differentiable Manifolds" book, pg 67.
Nov 4, 2010 at 3:34 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 56
Nov 4, 2010 at 3:18 history asked Steven Gubkin CC BY-SA 2.5