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Jan 3, 2023 at 15:23 comment added Emil Jeřábek See also mathoverflow.net/questions/416648/…
Aug 12, 2020 at 19:22 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
Nov 4, 2010 at 17:02 comment added Andreas Blass I learned later that "my" proof had actually been published earlier by Kenneth Appel. I can't find any record of what Morley's 1977 proof was, but later, in 1984, Morley sent me a short formula that does the job (for arbitrary primes): $\forall x_0\dots x_{p-1}\,\exists t_0\dots t_{p-1} \bigwedge_{\sigma\in p^p}\big((\bigwedge_{i=0}^{p-1}t_i=x_{\sigma(i)})\to x_{F_0(\sigma)}=x_{F_1(\sigma)}\big)$ where $F_0,F_1:p^p\to p$ are chosen so that for all $\sigma$, $F_0(\sigma)\neq F_1(\sigma)$ and if $\sigma$ is not one-to-one, then $\sigma(F_1(\sigma))=\sigma(F_0(\sigma))$.
Nov 4, 2010 at 2:18 comment added Harry Altman OK, now I'm wondering, does anyone know what Morley's solution for the p=5 case was?
Nov 4, 2010 at 0:10 history answered Neil Strickland CC BY-SA 2.5