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May 24, 2023 at 9:10 vote accept Martin Tang
May 23, 2023 at 18:00 history edited David Loeffler
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May 23, 2023 at 17:53 answer added David Loeffler timeline score: 3
May 23, 2023 at 16:07 comment added Will Sawin Of course, yes.
May 23, 2023 at 12:57 comment added Martin Tang @WillSawin That's right. But I guess the composition is actually the diamond operator $\langle p \rangle$.
May 23, 2023 at 11:00 history edited Martin Tang CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 23, 2023 at 9:57 comment added Will Sawin I don't know if this is the best way to prove this, but there is an automorphism of $X_0(p)$ that exchanges $p_1$ and $p_2$ by sending $(E, H)$ to $(E/H, E[p]/H)$, so if one is finite flat then the other is. To check this is an automorphism you just need to check that its composition with itself is the identity.
May 23, 2023 at 8:44 history asked Martin Tang CC BY-SA 4.0