Timeline for Counterexample for the Open Mapping Theorem
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
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| Jan 30 at 14:23 | comment | added | soggycornflakes | @Luke it is positive definite because if $||x||_\phi$ = 0, both $||x||$ and $\phi(x)$ are zero (since both terms are positive). Former implies $x=0$. | |
| Aug 19, 2022 at 0:15 | comment | added | Luke | It is not clear to me why $\|\cdot\|_\phi$ is a norm. In particular, I don't think it is positive definite. | |
| Nov 7, 2013 at 0:05 | history | edited | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Nov 3, 2010 at 22:42 | history | edited | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
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| Nov 3, 2010 at 22:07 | history | edited | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
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| Nov 3, 2010 at 21:15 | history | answered | Pietro Majer | CC BY-SA 2.5 |