Let $X$ be a finite CW-complex of $n$. We can consider $\pi_i (X)$'s as $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module ($i\geq 2$). Moreover, if $\tilde{X}$ is the universal covering of $X$, then $H_i (\tilde{X})$ is a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module for $i\geq 2$.
My question: is that is there relation between $\pi_i (X)$'s as $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module and $H_i (X)$'s as $\mathbb{Z}$-module or $H_i (\tilde{X})$ as $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module for $2\leq i\leq n$?
For $i\geq 2$, $\pi_i (X)$ is a $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module.
for $i\geq 2$, $H_i (\tilde{X})$ is a finitely generated $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module, where $\tilde{X}$ is the universal covering of $X$.
I know that the connection between homotopy groups and homology groups is given by the Hurewicz-Theorem. But I want a relation betweenmy question is that:
My question: Can we express $\pi_i (X)$'s as (as a $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module and) in terms of $H_i (X)$'s as(as $\mathbb{Z}$-module) or $H_i (\tilde{X})$ as(as $\mathbb{Z}\pi_1 (X)$-module particularly) for $2\leq i\leq n$? (particularly when they are free for $2\leq i\leq n$).