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May 12, 2023 at 19:53 comment added Terry Tao Ah, nice, that seems to work. Interestingly it seems that the Littlewood-Paley components are not nearly as well behaved now - each component can have rather bad normal derivative behavior, but somehow when one sums there is some cancellation and one recovers regularity up to the boundary again.
May 12, 2023 at 18:34 comment added Giorgio Metafune Sorry for the late replay. The argument I have in mind is the following. Take $g \in C^\infty (\bar \Omega)$ and let $V$ be its newtonian potential. Then $V \in C^1(R^n) \cap C^2(\Omega)$ and $\Delta V=g$ in $\Omega$. Your argument gives $V \in C^\infty (\partial \Omega)$. Next, solve the problem $\Delta u=g$ in $\Omega$, $u=V$ at the boundary. Since $g$ is smooth up to the boundary and $V$ is smooth at $\partial \Omega$, by elliptic regularity $ u \in C^\infty (\bar{\Omega})$. Since $u-V$ is harmonic in $\Omega$, continuous up to the boundary where it vanishes, we have $u=V$.
May 10, 2023 at 0:48 comment added Terry Tao @GiorgioMetafune As mentioned by the OP, $V$ is not going to lie in $C^\infty(\overline{\Omega})$ in general; note that lying in $C^\infty(\Omega)$ and in $C^\infty(\partial \Omega)$ is insuffiicent to guarantee $C^\infty(\overline{\Omega})$ regularity (in particular, the normal derivatives of $V$ could well blow up as one approaches the boundary; the argument here only controls tangential derivatives).
May 9, 2023 at 21:37 comment added Iosif Pinelis @TerryTao : Thank you for your explanation!
May 9, 2023 at 17:30 comment added Giorgio Metafune Thank you again. I have some comments. First of all, the proof seems to work if instead of $1$ there is a function $g \in C^\infty (\bar \Omega)$. Then $V$ is actually in $C^\infty (\bar \Omega)$ since $\Delta V=g$ and $V$ is smooth at the boundary. I cannot prove this, however, by the same method and I have to use the solvability of an elliptic problem. Is there a direct way? Finally, I think that the same proof applies for $n=2$ after differentiaitng first.
May 9, 2023 at 14:28 comment added Terry Tao $\Omega$ is bounded by hypothesis, so $y-z$ is bounded, hence any summand with $\varepsilon$ sufficiently large vanishes.
May 9, 2023 at 9:11 comment added Giorgio Metafune To check if I have understood: you need $\epsilon$ small to sum $\sum_\epsilon \epsilon^2$ (over small diadic numbers) and for $\epsilon$ large you sum $\sum_\epsilon \epsilon^{2-n-k}$ where $k$ denotes a number of derivatives. I do not see a restricion on $\epsilon$ when localizing. Is this correct? Thank you
May 9, 2023 at 7:13 history edited Terry Tao CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 9, 2023 at 7:07 comment added Terry Tao Starting with a standard Littlewood-Paley decomposition $1 = \sum_j \phi(2^j \xi)$ (with $\phi$ smooth and supported on an annulus $\{ \xi: |\xi| \sim 1\}$) we have $\frac{1}{|z-y|^{n-2}} = \sum_\varepsilon \varepsilon^2 \varepsilon^{-n} \varphi(\frac{y-z}{\varepsilon})$, where $\varepsilon$ ranges over powers of two and $\varphi(x) := \phi(x)/|x|^{n-2}$. Because of the boundedness of $\Omega$ we can discard the contribution of all sufficiently large $\varepsilon$.
May 9, 2023 at 4:09 comment added Iosif Pinelis Could you please say more about the smooth dyadic decomposition in the first sentence: what it is and why "it suffices to show that [...]"?
May 9, 2023 at 0:45 comment added student Professor Tao: This makes perfect sense. Thank you so much!
May 9, 2023 at 0:44 vote accept student
May 8, 2023 at 20:52 history answered Terry Tao CC BY-SA 4.0