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May 5, 2023 at 16:41 comment added kindasorta Very very curious to see an argument, whether from a reference or an answer.
May 5, 2023 at 8:08 comment added Satan's Minion If $A, B, C$ are crystalline representations, your statement is true for highly nontrivial reasons. I'm quite certain it fails in general. (Sorry, I'm on my phone in the subway, can't look up references.)
May 4, 2023 at 12:44 comment added kindasorta I could, but if I'm honest I don't know how to prove this statement even in the case when $A,B,C$ are replaced with arbitrary (or crystalline) representations. Should that be obvious?
May 4, 2023 at 12:19 comment added Satan's Minion Hmm, ok. You said they were group schemes. Then I'm confused about the meaning of $H^1_f(G,A)$ in this particular setup. Can you define it precisely for us?
May 4, 2023 at 12:11 comment added kindasorta Why should it not make sense? I said that these groups come equipped with a (non-trivial) $G$-action. The case I care about is when this is a conjugation action, so, for example, $1\in A$ is always $G$-fixed.
May 4, 2023 at 12:09 comment added Satan's Minion Uhhh $A^G$ doesn't make sense; do you mean $A(\overline{\mathbf{Q}_p})^G$?
May 4, 2023 at 9:33 history edited kindasorta CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
May 4, 2023 at 8:09 comment added Chris Wuthrich I guess $G$ should be the Galois group of $\mathbb{Q}_p$. It would be good to add (a reference to) the definition of $H^1_f$ in the non-abelian case.
May 4, 2023 at 6:54 history asked kindasorta CC BY-SA 4.0