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S May 24, 2023 at 16:05 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S May 24, 2023 at 16:05 history notice removed CommunityBot
May 24, 2023 at 9:38 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 23, 2023 at 14:37 comment added new account @EdwardH I don't fully understand your question. My logic is that under $\mathsf{AD}_\mathbb{R}$, a counterexample exists iff there exists $E$ Baire but not Borel reducible to $F$. I don't know whether Baire reducibility is absolute in a suitable sense. Also, if you could pardon my ignorance in dst, what is a reference for the free shift example being Baire but not Borel reducible?
S May 16, 2023 at 14:44 history bounty started new account
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May 14, 2023 at 7:01 history edited new account CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 14, 2023 at 2:02 history edited new account CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 30, 2023 at 20:14 comment added new account @NoahSchweber I mean any determinacy axiom that is strong...Apparently $\mathsf{AD}$ alone doesn't imply $\varphi=$ "all sets can be uniformized", and $\mathsf{AD}+\varphi$ is also known as $\mathsf{AD}_\mathbb{R}$
Apr 30, 2023 at 20:08 comment added Noah Schweber Is "strong determinacy" different from $\mathsf{AD}$? I've not heard that term before.
Apr 30, 2023 at 16:55 history asked new account CC BY-SA 4.0