Timeline for Random variable as an integral of an indicator function
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 27, 2023 at 1:48 | vote | accept | johnsmith | ||
| Mar 25, 2023 at 11:43 | comment | added | James Martin | Just to amplify what Christophe said: $y_+=\int_0^\infty I_{\{y>x\}}\mathrm{d}x$ is simply true for any real number $y$. There is nothing special involving random variables going on. | |
| Mar 25, 2023 at 9:55 | answer | added | johnsmith | timeline score: 0 | |
| Mar 25, 2023 at 9:22 | comment | added | Christophe Leuridan | Equality $X_+ = \int_0^\infty I_{\{X > x\}}\mathrm{d}x$ is obvious and is an equality between random variables. It cannot follow from equalities between expectations. Moreover, Mathoverflow is devoted to questions about research. | |
| Mar 25, 2023 at 1:01 | comment | added | Daniel Asimov | Does max(0, X) mean max{0, X}, i.e., the larger of X and 0 ? | |
| S Mar 25, 2023 at 0:43 | review | First questions | |||
| Mar 25, 2023 at 4:09 | |||||
| S Mar 25, 2023 at 0:43 | history | asked | johnsmith | CC BY-SA 4.0 |