Timeline for Does every finite map of smooth varieties birationally embed as a smooth hypersurface of 1d trivial bundle over the base?
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| Mar 20, 2023 at 15:18 | comment | added | Jason Starr | That is not a counterexample to the original post. The OP does not write that $Y’$ must be finite over $X$, merely birational to a finite morphism. | |
| Mar 20, 2023 at 15:02 | comment | added | user19232801 | It seems that the reason for this counterexample is that $X$ has nontrivial line bundles. What happens if one replaces $X \times \mathbb A^1$ with $L$ for some line bundle $L$ over $X$? | |
| Mar 20, 2023 at 12:50 | history | answered | Roberto Pignatelli | CC BY-SA 4.0 |