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Mar 17, 2023 at 4:39 answer added Saúl RM timeline score: 1
Mar 17, 2023 at 4:26 comment added D.S. Lipham By the way, it seems intuitively true. Picture the space in the Hilbert cube (or for practical purposes, in $\mathbb R ^3$). Bend/stretch the space so that $x$ is closer to the middle, and $y$ is at the outside with a third point stretched far away from it. Then consider the bent space in the Euclidean metric.
Mar 17, 2023 at 4:24 history edited D.S. Lipham CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2023 at 4:23 comment added D.S. Lipham Yes, any metric that induces the same topology.
Mar 17, 2023 at 4:22 comment added Piotr Hajlasz Do you mean $d'$ is topologically equivalent to $d$? You did not say that. Without that assumption your question is somewhat empty.
Mar 17, 2023 at 4:03 history edited D.S. Lipham CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2023 at 4:02 comment added D.S. Lipham I was thinking of connected spaces with more than 1 point. (edits made)
Mar 17, 2023 at 3:49 comment added Sam Hopkins Trivial comment: not if $X$ has only two points :)
Mar 17, 2023 at 3:46 history asked D.S. Lipham CC BY-SA 4.0