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Lorenzo Q
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Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$is at least one continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curvescurve $z_j(x)$$z(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$$f(x,z(x))=0$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$. Stronger statement: there are $k$ curves $z_j(x)$ such that in a neighborhood of $(0,0)$ we have $f(x,z)=0\iff z=z_j(x)$ for some $j=0,\dots, k-1$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result must hold. If $n\geq k$ is the degree then the polynomial has $n$ roots but at $(0,0)$ the root only has multiplicity $k$. Because the roots of polynomials depend continuously on the coefficients, which in turn are continuous with respect to $x$, this gives rise to exactly $k$ continuous roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ with $z_j(0)=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result must hold. If $n\geq k$ is the degree then the polynomial has $n$ roots but at $(0,0)$ the root only has multiplicity $k$. Because the roots of polynomials depend continuously on the coefficients, which in turn are continuous with respect to $x$, this gives rise to exactly $k$ continuous roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ with $z_j(0)=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there is at least one continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curve $z(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z(x))=0$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$. Stronger statement: there are $k$ curves $z_j(x)$ such that in a neighborhood of $(0,0)$ we have $f(x,z)=0\iff z=z_j(x)$ for some $j=0,\dots, k-1$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result must hold. If $n\geq k$ is the degree then the polynomial has $n$ roots but at $(0,0)$ the root only has multiplicity $k$. Because the roots of polynomials depend continuously on the coefficients, which in turn are continuous with respect to $x$, this gives rise to exactly $k$ continuous roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ with $z_j(0)=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

added 105 characters in body
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Lorenzo Q
  • 211
  • 1
  • 8

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result shouldmust hold, because each. If $n\geq k$ is the degree then the polynomial has $k$$n$ roots but at $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ which$(0,0)$ the root only has multiplicity $k$. Because the roots of polynomials depend continuously on the coefficients and collapse to a single root, which in turn are continuous with multiplicityrespect to $x$, this gives rise to exactly $k$ forcontinuous roots $x=0$$z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ with $z_j(0)=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result should hold, because each polynomial has $k$ roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ which depend continuously on the coefficients and collapse to a single root with multiplicity $k$ for $x=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result must hold. If $n\geq k$ is the degree then the polynomial has $n$ roots but at $(0,0)$ the root only has multiplicity $k$. Because the roots of polynomials depend continuously on the coefficients, which in turn are continuous with respect to $x$, this gives rise to exactly $k$ continuous roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ with $z_j(0)=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

deleted 37 characters in body
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Lorenzo Q
  • 211
  • 1
  • 8

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they vanish with order at least $k$ in $z$ orare $h$ in$o(z^k)$ $x$, plus one additional power in eitheror $z$ or$o(x^h)$ as $x$$(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result should hold, because each polynomial has $k$ roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ which depend continuously on the coefficients and collapse to a single root with multiplicity $k$ for $x=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms, i.e. they vanish with order at least $k$ in $z$ or $h$ in $x$, plus one additional power in either $z$ or $x$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result should hold, because each polynomial has $k$ roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ which depend continuously on the coefficients and collapse to a single root with multiplicity $k$ for $x=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

Let $\mathcal{U}\subset \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{C}$ a neighborhood of $(0,0)$, and $f:\mathcal{U}\to \mathbb{C}$ differentiable in the first variable and holomorphic in the second variable, with $f(0,0)=0$. I want to locally express the zeros of $f$ as one or more curves $z=z(x)$ with $z(0)=0$. The hypothesis I want to eliminate is that $\partial_z f(0,0)\neq 0 $. Instead, suppose that for some $k,h\in \mathbb{N}$ with $k\geq 2$, as $(x,z) \to (0,0)$ we have $$ f(x,z)= z^k+ x^h+ h.o.t.,$$ where $h.o.t.$ stands for higher order terms in $x$ or $z$, i.e. they are $o(z^k)$ or $o(x^h)$ as $(x,z)\to (0,0)$. I wish to prove that there are $k$ continuous (not necessarily differentiable) curves $z_j(x)$ on $\mathcal{U}$ such that $f(x,z_j(x))=0$ for all $j=1,\dots k$ in a neighborhood of $x=0$.

Could someone point at a specific result from the literature which implies the above (or explain why it doesn't hold)?

Example: At least if $f$ is a polynomial in $z$ then the result should hold, because each polynomial has $k$ roots $z_1(x),\dots, z_k(x)$ which depend continuously on the coefficients and collapse to a single root with multiplicity $k$ for $x=0$.

Attempts at proof.

The issue is to generalize the result to functions which aren't just polynomials in $z$. My efforts at trying to transform $f$ so that the standard IFT can be applied haven't been successful:

  • Define $g(x,z):=f(x,z)^{1/k}_j$, then $g$ is no longer differentiable in $(0,0)$ and hence does not satisfy the assumptions of the IFT. Also, the limit of $f$ to $(0,0)$ does not exist.
  • One can apply the IFT to $\partial_z^{k-1}f$ but this is useless. We could even assume by induction that the statement holds for $k'<k$, but the curves where $\partial_z^{k'}f$ vanishes are different for each $k'=1,\dots, k-1$.
  • Dividing by $(z)^{k-1}$ doesn't work as the limit of $f$ in $(0,0)$ no longer exists.

The problem is also equivalent to finding a (continuous, differentiable for $x\neq 0$) solution $z(x)$ to the I.V.P. $$z'(x)\partial_z f(x,z(x))=-\partial_x f (x,z(x)),\qquad z(0)=0.$$ In standard IFT, we can divide by $\partial_z f$ and apply the standard local existence and uniqueness result. Here we cannot because $\partial_z f(0,0)=0$. I do not know any existence theorem that would apply in this case. We could perturbate the initial condition by a $w\in \mathbb{C}$, obtaining a curve $z_w(x)$ such that for $w$ small enough, $$ |f(x,z_w(x))|=|f(0,w)|\leq 2|C_1| |w|^k. $$ Here the map $w\mapsto z_w(x)$ is continuous on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{{0\}}$, but this is not enough to conclude that the limit as $w\to 0$ exists.

This question provides a positive answer to the case $k=2$ but the proof does not extend to higher $k$. I suspect the result might be a special case of this paper but there is too much algebra for me to understand even the statements. Maybe someone could confirm whether they can be applied or not?

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