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Mar 12, 2023 at 13:58 vote accept user267839
Mar 12, 2023 at 4:27 comment added Drizzle @user267839 No, since A is classical closed when we take the classical closure of A, it is unchanged. But the right-hand side is changed when we take the classical closure, which is also Zariski closed. This leads to the Zariski closeness of A.
Mar 11, 2023 at 12:43 comment added user267839 do you maybe mean in your penultimate sentence that we take "Zariski closure" of $A$ and not "classical closure"? Indeed, since $A$ is assumed to be already closed in classical topology, the latter action would not change $A$, or do I missing your point?
Mar 11, 2023 at 12:26 vote accept user267839
Mar 11, 2023 at 12:42
Mar 11, 2023 at 6:46 review Late answers
Mar 11, 2023 at 7:06
S Mar 11, 2023 at 6:23 review First answers
Mar 11, 2023 at 7:31
S Mar 11, 2023 at 6:23 history answered Drizzle CC BY-SA 4.0