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Mar 28, 2023 at 9:59 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 28, 2023 at 9:45 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 12, 2023 at 11:32 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 10, 2023 at 8:50 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 20:29 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 19:24 vote accept Wreior
Mar 9, 2023 at 17:47 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 15:57 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 3
Mar 9, 2023 at 15:36 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 15:27 review Close votes
Mar 16, 2023 at 3:06
Mar 9, 2023 at 15:08 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 13:42 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 12:35 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 12:16 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2023 at 9:03 comment added Wreior Or differently. Is it posible to prove my form of equation from Poisson summation
Mar 9, 2023 at 8:57 comment added Wreior It could be. But then how to transform my equation into $\sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f (n)=\sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\hat {f} (n)$
Mar 9, 2023 at 8:52 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 8, 2023 at 22:13 comment added Anurag Sahay Is $\mathcal{L}$ supposed to be the Laplace transform? The Laplace transform can be thought of as a change of variable of the Fourier transform, and I think your equality is just Poisson summation with that change of variable made.
Mar 8, 2023 at 21:08 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 8, 2023 at 18:55 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 8, 2023 at 18:03 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 8, 2023 at 17:53 history edited Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Mar 8, 2023 at 17:46 review First questions
Mar 8, 2023 at 19:54
S Mar 8, 2023 at 17:46 history asked Wreior CC BY-SA 4.0