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Feb 25, 2023 at 6:59 vote accept Hermi
Feb 24, 2023 at 21:51 comment added Carlo Beenakker no contradiction, the coefficients $c$ are different in the two inequalities, of course, here $c\ll 1$, in your earlier question $c\gg 1$.
Feb 24, 2023 at 20:11 comment added Hermi Thank you! So this result does not contradict with mathoverflow.net/questions/436173/…?
Feb 24, 2023 at 7:14 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0