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Feb 20, 2023 at 14:24 answer added jjcale timeline score: 2
Feb 19, 2023 at 18:43 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 4
Feb 19, 2023 at 18:37 answer added Mark Lewko timeline score: 2
Feb 19, 2023 at 18:16 comment added jjcale For $n = 2$ the ratio $a_1 / a_2$ should be irrational, right ?
Feb 19, 2023 at 17:39 history edited GH from MO
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Feb 19, 2023 at 16:44 comment added user975628 No for now that's also not obvious to me. Actually I'm also wondering what happens if the $a$'s belong to an interval, $a \in (x,y)$ where $x<y$. Would this be enough to conclude that $f=0$?
Feb 19, 2023 at 16:40 comment added LSpice Is it obvious that $F_a = 0$ for all $a > 0$ implies $F = 0$?
Feb 19, 2023 at 16:40 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
`\label`+`\eqref`
Feb 19, 2023 at 16:15 history edited user975628 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 19, 2023 at 16:15 history edited user975628 CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
S Feb 19, 2023 at 16:14 review First questions
Feb 19, 2023 at 16:25
S Feb 19, 2023 at 16:14 history asked user975628 CC BY-SA 4.0