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Feb 12, 2023 at 16:17 history edited PSE CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 12, 2023 at 16:15 comment added PSE Yes, it is an interpretation, but this interpretation tells me more about the constructed Lévy process and nothing about the random variable $X$.
Feb 12, 2023 at 12:56 comment added Iosif Pinelis For any infinitely divisible random vector $X$, you can always have a Lévy process $(Y_t)_{t\ge0}$ such that $Y_1$ equals $X$ in distribution. So, the Lévy measure for the distribution of $X$ is the same as that for the corresponding Lévy process $(Y_t)_{t\ge0}$. Hence, the desired interpretation.
Feb 12, 2023 at 12:27 history edited Jukka Kohonen CC BY-SA 4.0
Spelling of Lévy etc.
Feb 12, 2023 at 8:03 history edited PSE CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 12, 2023 at 4:14 history asked PSE CC BY-SA 4.0