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Timeline for An ultrafilter and a partition

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Oct 30, 2010 at 23:02 comment added Joel David Hamkins Porton, I am just integrating the function $n\mapsto \mu_n(X)$ with respect to $\mu$. It amounts to the ultrapower of the $\mu_n$ by $\mu$, which can be thought of as a kind of integration, and this is why we use the $\int$ sign, but Andres is right that one can view it merely as a suggestive notation, falling back simply to the definition that was given.
Oct 30, 2010 at 20:22 comment added porton In Wikipedia there is defined integral of a function. But Joel integrates a measure rather than a function. Where can I read about this?
Oct 30, 2010 at 0:26 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo Porton: A decent book on measure theory should cover this, I would expect, though perhaps the examples there will be mostly non-atomic measures that are not 2-valued as in this case. (In particular, look at the Radon-Nikodym derivative, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radon%E2%80%93Nikodym_theorem) But the notation and the background prerequisites are a bit of a distraction here, Joel explicitly defined what it means for the case under consideration.
Oct 29, 2010 at 22:03 comment added porton Where can I read a short introduction about such use of integral sign?
Oct 29, 2010 at 4:58 comment added Joel David Hamkins This is the usual way of integrating measures with respect to a measure. We are adding up the $\mu_n$ values of the set $X$ with respect to the measure $\mu$.
Oct 29, 2010 at 4:41 comment added porton Where you've got that usage of integral sign?
Oct 29, 2010 at 4:25 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 2.5