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Jul 23, 2022 at 12:43 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
Mar 12, 2013 at 1:43 history edited Andy Putman CC BY-SA 3.0
added 254 characters in body
Oct 29, 2010 at 1:10 comment added Charles Rezk Ah, I misread it.
Oct 29, 2010 at 1:03 comment added Paul @IB the relationship is explained in Akbulut-McCarthy's book in detail but I've forgotten the argument. There's an outline here math.niu.edu/~rusin/known-math/96/Triangulations which asserts that if E8 were triangulable it could be smoothed in the complement of its vertices. Removing a nbd of each vertex yields a smooth manifold with boundary a union of homotopy (?) 3-spheres whose total Rohlin invariant is 1 (since $\sigma(E8)=1$). But Casson's invariant is zero on homotopy spheres and is a lift of Rohlin.
Oct 28, 2010 at 23:19 comment added Igor Belegradek It seems that the fact that E8 is not triangulable should follow from basic properties of Casson invariant (of which I know next to nothing). I am curious to see how the argument goes.
Oct 28, 2010 at 22:49 comment added Igor Belegradek The slides say (on page 5) that NOT every 4-manifold is triangulable.
Oct 28, 2010 at 22:38 comment added Charles Rezk Thanks! Those slides say that the problem is solved in dimension 4 (all manifolds are triangulable), attributed to Casson.
Oct 28, 2010 at 22:03 history answered Andy Putman CC BY-SA 2.5