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Feb 17, 2023 at 2:07 vote accept James Propp
Feb 6, 2023 at 9:04 answer added Tony Huynh timeline score: 4
Feb 6, 2023 at 6:39 answer added Gerry Myerson timeline score: 3
Feb 4, 2023 at 23:22 comment added Gerry Myerson It is certainly always possible for $n=2$. Given the system $ax+by=r,cx+dy=s$ we go to $acx+bcy=cr,acx+ady=as$, then (wlog $ad>bc$) $(ad-bc)y=as-cr$, $y=(as-cr)/(ad-bc)$, and so on. The only thing stopping a proof for all $n$ by induction is whether the "wlog" goes through.
Feb 4, 2023 at 17:55 history asked James Propp CC BY-SA 4.0