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Saúl RM
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The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$. Below I show it for $p>2$, but this is enough because if we have convex sets $A\subseteq B$, then the surface area of $B$ is bigger than that of $A$, which follows from the proof in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

NoteFirst note that the minimum value of $\sum_{i=1}^n|x_i|^p$ in the sphere $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is achieved when $x_1=\dots=x_n$. This can be deduced by setting $y_i=x_i^2$ and then $\sum y_i^{p/2}$ is convex, so for any $y_1,\dots,y_n\geq0$, if $\sum y_i=1$ then $\sum y_i^{p/2}\geq n\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^{p/2}$, with equality when $y_1=\dots=y_n$.

This implies that the ball $B$ of radius $n^\frac{p-2}{2p}$, which is tangent to the $L^p$ ball at the points $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, contains the $L^p$ ball. So the $n-1$-volume of $\partial B$ is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked usingand we just have to prove that the same proof as inarea of this MSE answer$B$ goes to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?$0$ when $n\to\infty$.

Now, the area of $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$ is $\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}$, so the area of $\partial B$ is $A=\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}\left(n^\frac{p-2}{2p}\right)^{n-1}$. So

$$\ln(A)=-\ln\left(\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\right)+n\frac{p-2}{2p}\ln(n)+O(n),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is $$-\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n)=-\frac{n}{2}\ln(n)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n),$$ which goes to $-\infty$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$, concluding the proof.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Note that the minimum value of $\sum_{i=1}^n|x_i|^p$ in the sphere $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is achieved when $x_1=\dots=x_n$. This can be deduced by setting $y_i=x_i^2$ and then $\sum y_i^{p/2}$ is convex, so for any $y_1,\dots,y_n\geq0$, if $\sum y_i=1$ then $\sum y_i^{p/2}\geq n\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^{p/2}$, with equality when $y_1=\dots=y_n$.

This implies that the ball $B$ of radius $n^\frac{p-2}{2p}$, which is tangent to the $L^p$ ball at the points $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, contains the $L^p$ ball. So the $n-1$-volume of $\partial B$ is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

Now, the area of $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$ is $\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}$, so the area of $\partial B$ is $A=\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}\left(n^\frac{p-2}{2p}\right)^{n-1}$. So

$$\ln(A)=-\ln\left(\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\right)+n\frac{p-2}{2p}\ln(n)+O(n),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is $$-\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n)=-\frac{n}{2}\ln(n)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n),$$ which goes to $-\infty$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$, concluding the proof.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$. Below I show it for $p>2$, but this is enough because if we have convex sets $A\subseteq B$, then the surface area of $B$ is bigger than that of $A$, which follows from the proof in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

First note that the minimum value of $\sum_{i=1}^n|x_i|^p$ in the sphere $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is achieved when $x_1=\dots=x_n$. This can be deduced by setting $y_i=x_i^2$ and then $\sum y_i^{p/2}$ is convex, so for any $y_1,\dots,y_n\geq0$, if $\sum y_i=1$ then $\sum y_i^{p/2}\geq n\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^{p/2}$, with equality when $y_1=\dots=y_n$.

This implies that the ball $B$ of radius $n^\frac{p-2}{2p}$, which is tangent to the $L^p$ ball at the points $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, contains the $L^p$ ball. So the $n-1$-volume of $\partial B$ is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball, and we just have to prove that the area of $B$ goes to $0$ when $n\to\infty$.

Now, the area of $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$ is $\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}$, so the area of $\partial B$ is $A=\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}\left(n^\frac{p-2}{2p}\right)^{n-1}$. So

$$\ln(A)=-\ln\left(\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\right)+n\frac{p-2}{2p}\ln(n)+O(n),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is $$-\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n)=-\frac{n}{2}\ln(n)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n),$$ which goes to $-\infty$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$, concluding the proof.

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Saúl RM
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The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

ConsiderNote that the orthoplex circumscribed to anminimum value of $L^p$-ball, with boundary contained$\sum_{i=1}^n|x_i|^p$ in the sphere $2^n$ hyperplanes$\mathbb{S}^{n-1}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is achieved when $\{\varepsilon_1x_1+\dots+\varepsilon_nx_n=\frac{n}{n^{1/p}}\}$$x_1=\dots=x_n$. This can be deduced by setting $y_i=x_i^2$ and then $\sum y_i^{p/2}$ is convex, so for any $\varepsilon_i\in\{0,1\}$. The$y_1,\dots,y_n\geq0$, if $2^n$ points of tangency are$\sum y_i=1$ then $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$$\sum y_i^{p/2}\geq n\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^{p/2}$, andwith equality when $y_1=\dots=y_n$.

This implies that the ball $2n$ vertices$B$ of radius $n^\frac{p-2}{2p}$, which is tangent to the orthoplex are$L^p$ ball at the points $\pm n^\frac{p-1}{p}$ of all coordinates axes$(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, contains the $L^p$ ball.

Then So the $n-1$-volume of the surface of the orthoplex$\partial B$ is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

So we just have to check that for fixed $p$Now, the surface area of this orthoplex goes to $0$ when $n$ goes to $\infty$. Note that the orthoplex has edges of length $\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}$, and its surface is formed by $2^n$ simplices of dimension $n-1$. The volume of an $n-1$-dimensional simplex with unit edges$\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$ is $\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}$$\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}$, so the surface volumearea of the orthoplex$\partial B$ is

$$A=2^n\cdot\left(\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}\right)^{n-1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}=2^nn^\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!}$$

This converges to $0$, as can be seen by taking logarithms:$A=\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}\left(n^\frac{p-2}{2p}\right)^{n-1}$. So

$$\ln(A)=n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)+\frac{\ln(n-1)}{2}-\ln((n-1)!),$$$$\ln(A)=-\ln\left(\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\right)+n\frac{p-2}{2p}\ln(n)+O(n),$$

which by Stirling's approximationStirling's approximation is

$$n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+(n-1)+O(ln(n))$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n)$$$$-\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n)=-\frac{n}{2}\ln(n)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n),$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}(n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1))-\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n).$$

As $p$ is constant, the term $\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)$ dominates the others, so the expressionwhich goes to $-\infty$ whenas $n\to\infty$$n$ tends to $\infty$, as we wantedconcluding the proof.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Consider the orthoplex circumscribed to an $L^p$-ball, with boundary contained in the $2^n$ hyperplanes $\{\varepsilon_1x_1+\dots+\varepsilon_nx_n=\frac{n}{n^{1/p}}\}$, for $\varepsilon_i\in\{0,1\}$. The $2^n$ points of tangency are $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, and the $2n$ vertices of the orthoplex are the points $\pm n^\frac{p-1}{p}$ of all coordinates axes.

Then the $n-1$-volume of the surface of the orthoplex is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

So we just have to check that for fixed $p$, the surface area of this orthoplex goes to $0$ when $n$ goes to $\infty$. Note that the orthoplex has edges of length $\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}$, and its surface is formed by $2^n$ simplices of dimension $n-1$. The volume of an $n-1$-dimensional simplex with unit edges is $\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}$, so the surface volume of the orthoplex is

$$A=2^n\cdot\left(\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}\right)^{n-1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}=2^nn^\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!}$$

This converges to $0$, as can be seen by taking logarithms:

$$\ln(A)=n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)+\frac{\ln(n-1)}{2}-\ln((n-1)!),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is

$$n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+(n-1)+O(ln(n))$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n)$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}(n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1))-\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n).$$

As $p$ is constant, the term $\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)$ dominates the others, so the expression goes to $-\infty$ when $n\to\infty$, as we wanted.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Note that the minimum value of $\sum_{i=1}^n|x_i|^p$ in the sphere $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is achieved when $x_1=\dots=x_n$. This can be deduced by setting $y_i=x_i^2$ and then $\sum y_i^{p/2}$ is convex, so for any $y_1,\dots,y_n\geq0$, if $\sum y_i=1$ then $\sum y_i^{p/2}\geq n\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)^{p/2}$, with equality when $y_1=\dots=y_n$.

This implies that the ball $B$ of radius $n^\frac{p-2}{2p}$, which is tangent to the $L^p$ ball at the points $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, contains the $L^p$ ball. So the $n-1$-volume of $\partial B$ is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

Now, the area of $\mathbb{S}^{n-1}$ is $\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}$, so the area of $\partial B$ is $A=\frac{2\pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}\left(n^\frac{p-2}{2p}\right)^{n-1}$. So

$$\ln(A)=-\ln\left(\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)\right)+n\frac{p-2}{2p}\ln(n)+O(n),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is $$-\frac{n}{2}\ln\left(\frac{n}{2}\right)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n)=-\frac{n}{2}\ln(n)+n\ln(n)\frac{p-2}{2p}+O(n),$$ which goes to $-\infty$ as $n$ tends to $\infty$, concluding the proof.

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Saúl RM
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The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Consider the orthoplex circumscribed to an $L^p$-ball, with boundary contained in the $2^n$ hyperplanes $\{\varepsilon_1x_1+\dots+\varepsilon_nx_n=\frac{n}{n^{1/p}}\}$, for $\varepsilon_i\in\{0,1\}$. The $2^n$ points of tangency are $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, and the $2n$ vertices of the orthoplex are the points $\pm n^\frac{p-1}{p}$ of all coordinates axes.

Then the $n-1$-volume of the surface of the orthoplex is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

So we just have to check that for fixed $p$, the surface area of this orthoplex goes to $0$ when $n$ goes to $\infty$. Note that the orthoplex has edges of length $\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}$, and theits surface of the orthoplex is formed by $2^n$ simplices of dimension $n-1$. The volume of an $n-1$-dimensional simplex with unit edges is $\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}$, so the surface volume of the orthoplex is

$$A=2^n\cdot\left(\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}\right)^{n-1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}=2^nn^\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!}$$

This converges to $0$, as can be seen by taking logarithms:

$$\ln(A)=n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)+\frac{\ln(n-1)}{2}-\ln((n-1)!),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is

$$n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+(n-1)+O(ln(n))$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n)$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}(n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1))-\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n).$$

As $p$ is constant, the term $\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)$ dominates the others, so the expression goes to $-\infty$ when $n\to\infty$, as we wanted.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Consider the orthoplex circumscribed to an $L^p$-ball, with boundary contained in the $2^n$ hyperplanes $\{\varepsilon_1x_1+\dots+\varepsilon_nx_n=\frac{n}{n^{1/p}}\}$, for $\varepsilon_i\in\{0,1\}$. The $2^n$ points of tangency are $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, and the $2n$ vertices of the orthoplex are the points $\pm n^\frac{p-1}{p}$ of all coordinates axes.

Then the $n-1$-volume of the surface of the orthoplex is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

So we just have to check that for fixed $p$, the surface area of this orthoplex goes to $0$ when $n$ goes to $\infty$. Note that the orthoplex has edges of length $\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}$, and the surface of the orthoplex is formed by $2^n$ simplices of dimension $n-1$. The volume of an $n-1$-dimensional simplex with unit edges is $\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}$, so the surface volume of the orthoplex is

$$A=2^n\cdot\left(\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}\right)^{n-1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}=2^nn^\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!}$$

This converges to $0$, as can be seen by taking logarithms:

$$\ln(A)=n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)+\frac{\ln(n-1)}{2}-\ln((n-1)!),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is

$$n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+(n-1)+O(ln(n))$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n)$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}(n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1))-\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n).$$

As $p$ is constant, the term $\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)$ dominates the others, so the expression goes to $-\infty$ when $n\to\infty$, as we wanted.

The surface area of the unit $L^p$ ball (of radius $1$) goes to $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity, if $p<\infty$.

Consider the orthoplex circumscribed to an $L^p$-ball, with boundary contained in the $2^n$ hyperplanes $\{\varepsilon_1x_1+\dots+\varepsilon_nx_n=\frac{n}{n^{1/p}}\}$, for $\varepsilon_i\in\{0,1\}$. The $2^n$ points of tangency are $(\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}},\dots,\pm\frac{1}{n^{1/p}})$, and the $2n$ vertices of the orthoplex are the points $\pm n^\frac{p-1}{p}$ of all coordinates axes.

Then the $n-1$-volume of the surface of the orthoplex is bigger than that of the $L^p$-ball: this works in general for two convex sets one contained in the other, which can be checked using the same proof as in this MSE answer to Surface area of a convex set less than that of its enclosing sphere?.

So we just have to check that for fixed $p$, the surface area of this orthoplex goes to $0$ when $n$ goes to $\infty$. Note that the orthoplex has edges of length $\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}$, and its surface is formed by $2^n$ simplices of dimension $n-1$. The volume of an $n-1$-dimensional simplex with unit edges is $\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}$, so the surface volume of the orthoplex is

$$A=2^n\cdot\left(\sqrt{2}n^\frac{p-1}{p}\right)^{n-1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!\sqrt{2^{n-1}}}=2^nn^\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\frac{\sqrt{n-1}}{(n-1)!}$$

This converges to $0$, as can be seen by taking logarithms:

$$\ln(A)=n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)+\frac{\ln(n-1)}{2}-\ln((n-1)!),$$

which by Stirling's approximation is

$$n\ln(2)+\frac{(n-1)(p-1)}{p}\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+(n-1)+O(ln(n))$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n)$$ $$=\frac{p-1}{p}(n\ln(n)-(n-1)\ln(n-1))-\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)+O(n).$$

As $p$ is constant, the term $\frac{1}{p}(n-1)\ln(n-1)$ dominates the others, so the expression goes to $-\infty$ when $n\to\infty$, as we wanted.

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