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Jan 27, 2023 at 17:40 vote accept thedude
Jan 27, 2023 at 14:14 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 2
Jan 27, 2023 at 13:10 comment added thedude But $m_0=1$ holds originally, it is only in the function obtained from the MGF that $m_0$ is spoiled, understanding that is exactly the question.
Jan 27, 2023 at 12:21 comment added Dieter Kadelka Simply because always $m_0 = 1$ for probability measures! See f.i. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moment-generating_function $m_0$ is an essential part!
Jan 27, 2023 at 12:09 comment added thedude @DieterKadelka How do you know that there is no probability distribution with these moments?
Jan 27, 2023 at 12:08 comment added Dieter Kadelka Without following your steps your conclusion is of course correct, there simply is no probability distribution with these moments. If the conclusion of some statement is absurd, then the statement cannot be correct!
Jan 27, 2023 at 11:12 history asked thedude CC BY-SA 4.0