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Jan 24, 2023 at 19:14 vote accept r_l
Jan 24, 2023 at 14:35 answer added Alexandre Eremenko timeline score: 2
Jan 24, 2023 at 11:50 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki In the same vein, it is not enough to assume that $T f(n) = 0$ for all integer $n$: the strong Stieltjes moment problem can be indeterminate, too.
Jan 24, 2023 at 11:42 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki A rather obvious comment: $T f(n) = 0$ for all natural $n$ is not enough. Indeed: if we write $Tf(s) = \int_0^\infty f(-\log t) t^{s - 1} dt$, then $T f(n) = 0$ corresponds to the Stieltjes moment problem.
Jan 24, 2023 at 10:55 history asked r_l CC BY-SA 4.0