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Jan 24, 2023 at 9:08 comment added abo @EmilJeřábek. Thank you Emil. Very clear and helpful as always.
Jan 23, 2023 at 12:27 comment added Emil Jeřábek @abo Oh, and yes: if $\phi$ is any arithmetical sentence (in a relational language where the arithmetical operations are not necessarily total), then $T\vdash\phi$ iff $I\Delta_0\vdash\forall x\,\phi^{\le x}$ and $\mathrm{PA}\vdash\phi$, where $\phi^{\le x}$ is $\phi$ with all quantifiers bounded by $x$.
Jan 23, 2023 at 12:21 comment added Emil Jeřábek @Joel Concerning references, you already got an answer from Ali. The result that every model of $\mathrm{PA^{top}}$ is an initial interval of a model of $I\Delta_0$ is also proved in Hájek&Pudlák (Theorem IV.2.2), again attributed to Paris. Let me add that some interesting properties of variants of $\mathrm{PA^{top}}$ related to the weak pigeonhole principle are in Neil Thapen’s Ph.D. thesis.
Jan 23, 2023 at 12:15 comment added Emil Jeřábek @abo Yes, it does. This follows from the fact that every model of $T$ has an end-extension to a model of $I\Delta_0$, as mentioned by Joel. Consequently, $T$ and $I\Delta_0$ prove the same $\Pi_1$ sentences (formulated so that only variables can be used to bound quantifiers).
Jan 23, 2023 at 9:02 comment added abo Thanks Emil. My question is does the 1st order theory with the usual axioms for successor, +, and $\times$, minus the axiom that every number has a successor (and so the other axioms suitably adjusted) prove EL. Call this theory $T$. $T$ provability is different from $I \Delta_0$ provability because $I \Delta_0$ proves $\forall x \exists y (y = x+1)$ but $T$ doesn't (right??). Is there an operation * (e.g. bounding the quantifiers??) s.t. $T$ proves $\phi$ iff $I \Delta_0$ proves $\phi^*$? In any case my question is whether $T$ proves EL. Sorry for being stupid so early in the morning ...
Jan 22, 2023 at 18:54 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, that is helpful.
Jan 22, 2023 at 18:18 comment added Emil Jeřábek @Joel If I recall correctly, the system abo works with is not a genuine second-order theory, but “axiomatic second-order”, i.e., a two-sorted first-order theory with full comprehension. Its models where the successor function is not total are intervals on models of $V^\infty$, or equivalently (up to the so-called RSUV isomorphism), intervals on models of $I\Delta_0+\Omega_1$ (where numbers represent sets, and logarithmically small numbers represent numbers; see mathoverflow.net/a/120106 for more details).
Jan 22, 2023 at 17:29 comment added Emil Jeřábek Euclid's lema is quite easy to prove in $I\Delta_0$ (or even its weak fragment $IE_1$). Whether $I\Delta_0$ proves Bertrand's postulate, or even just the unboundedness of primes, is a well known open problem; by a result of Woods, Bertrand's postulate (and the slightly stronger Sylvester's theorem) is provable in $I\Delta_0+WPHP(\Delta_0)$ (weak pigeonhole principle), which is included in $I\Delta_0+\Omega_1$.
Jan 22, 2023 at 16:04 comment added Joel David Hamkins One should think of it as a very weak theory, in which even exponentiation is problematic and induction is possible only for very local phenomena.
Jan 22, 2023 at 15:54 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, I thought you were asking about the second order theory. Huge difference. Since the models of the first-order theory are exactly the cut-offs of models of $I\Delta_0$, as I explain in my answer, the question is whether those theorems are provable in $I\Delta_0$, and there are many open questions about that. For example, pigeon-hole principle scheme is open.
Jan 22, 2023 at 15:20 comment added abo I'm asking if they (Euclid's Lemma, Bertrand's Postulate) are provable in the first-order theory from the usual axioms for successor, addition, and multiplication (minus the axiom that every number has a successor). Are they?
Jan 22, 2023 at 14:59 comment added Joel David Hamkins It is problematic to speak of "provable" in a second-order theory, since we don't have a sound & complete proof system for second-order logic.
Jan 22, 2023 at 14:56 comment added Joel David Hamkins Both of those will be provable in the second-order theory. For Bertrand, take the statement for every n, there is a prime between n and 2n. You interpret the numbers up to 2n using digit representation as in my answer. This is a valid consequence of PA2top because it is true in standard finite segments. Similarly with Euclid's lemma. What I am saying is that any true statement expressible in the PAtop language will be valid in PA2top. The difficult cases occur with fast-growing functions that are out of reach of the interpretability methods, making the statements themselves not expressible.
Jan 22, 2023 at 14:44 comment added abo @JoelDavidHamkins. Thanks very much! I'm really looking for natural examples, the more basic the better, so not examples independent of PA. E.g. Euclid's Lemma. (Or Bertrand's Postulate.)
Jan 22, 2023 at 14:01 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 22, 2023 at 14:00 comment added Joel David Hamkins @abo The second-order version is true only in standard finite models, and so any $\Pi_1$ statement that is independent of PA (and there are many) will be unprovable in fPA but provable in the second-order version. e.g. all true consistency statements, and more.
Jan 22, 2023 at 13:28 comment added abo @EmilJeřábek. If this is an abuse of your good services, then please ignore it. Is there a simple example of a statement unprovable in first-order fPA but provable in second-order fPA (i.e. with comprehension)? $\forall x \exists y Sx,y \rightarrow Cons(PA)$, where S is the successorship relationship and Cons(PA) is an arithmetical statement of the consistency of first-order PA, would if I'm not mistaken be an example, but I'm interested in a natural example. Is e.g. even Euclid's Lemma ($p|ab \rightarrow p|a \lor p|b$) provable in fPA? fPA just seems to be very weak, but perhaps I err...
Jan 22, 2023 at 13:13 vote accept James Propp
Jan 21, 2023 at 11:04 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 21, 2023 at 9:59 comment added Joel David Hamkins No problem, take your time.
Jan 21, 2023 at 9:48 comment added Emil Jeřábek I’ll look up something. But checking references is very time consuming, and I likely won’t be able to do it during weekend.
Jan 20, 2023 at 23:19 comment added Joel David Hamkins @EmilJeřábek If you have a good reference, I shall add it to the post.
Jan 20, 2023 at 22:37 vote accept James Propp
Jan 21, 2023 at 13:19
Jan 20, 2023 at 21:53 comment added Joel David Hamkins Thanks Emil. We've seen some hints of that, but clearly haven't been looking in the right place.
Jan 20, 2023 at 21:49 comment added Emil Jeřábek The established name for the theory fPA plus the existence of a largest element is $\mathrm{PA^{top}}$. The fact that all its models are intervals of models of $I\Delta_0$ is well known.
Jan 20, 2023 at 21:13 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 20, 2023 at 19:55 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 4.0