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May 9, 2023 at 21:59 history edited leo monsaingeon CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 17, 2023 at 3:50 comment added pseudocydonia I think it is fine to assume that $\pi$ itself has finite second moment, but $\lambda$-log-concavity would be overly restrictive.
Jan 16, 2023 at 21:35 comment added leo monsaingeon Neither. What can you tell us about the refernce measure $\pi$? By any chance, is it $\lambda$ log-concave for some $\lambda>0$?
Jan 16, 2023 at 19:33 comment added pseudocydonia Agreed. Do you have a proof that this is a non-issue, or know of a counter-example?
Jan 15, 2023 at 20:39 comment added leo monsaingeon Well, this means that the only issue is a posisble escape of mass at infinity.
Jan 15, 2023 at 17:20 comment added pseudocydonia Sorry, fixed typo regarding $\pi$. As for your second comment, I agree this is surely relevant, but do you have an idea of how to use this to resolve the issue?
Jan 15, 2023 at 17:18 history edited pseudocydonia CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 15, 2023 at 7:21 comment added leo monsaingeon Perhaps a relevant comment is that the $W_2$ distance is well-known to metrize "weak convergence + convergence of the 2nd moments"?
Jan 15, 2023 at 7:21 comment added leo monsaingeon What do you mean, $\pi\in \mathbb R^d$? Is $\pi$ a probability measure, or just a (posisbly unbounded, e.g. Lebesgue) nonnegative measure?
Jan 15, 2023 at 2:49 history asked pseudocydonia CC BY-SA 4.0