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Jan 14, 2023 at 14:45 comment added Someone satisfy some condition then we know that the spheres generated by them are homologous ? Sorry for the questions I'm just trying to get a good idea of what is going. Furthermore if instead you know of a reference for these facts that would also be of great help. Thank you ! @JonnyEvans
Jan 14, 2023 at 14:44 comment added Someone Thanks for the answer, it really helps to get a better picture of what is going on. I just have a few questions that come from my lack of knowledge I suppose. So if we have Hamiltonian diffeomorphism, this will induce the trivial map on homology ? So it kinda generalizes the fact that the hamiltonian diffeomorphism preserves the symplectic form ? Also the sphere over the edges generate the second homology but has it happens in the product of spheres some of them are homologous. And so does that generalize to other examples, say if the normal vectors of 2 facets
Jan 14, 2023 at 14:39 vote accept Someone
Jan 14, 2023 at 13:57 history answered Jonny Evans CC BY-SA 4.0